Dear Catholic Exchange,
I am looking at James 1:27. Some versions actually say “Pure religion and undefiled before our God and Father is this, to visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep oneself unspotted from the world.”
Many versions do not have that word, “fatherless” in there. My question is — according to the Bible, is a widow ONLY someone whose husband died or does it also include women who have never been married with children? I guess in Bible times women with children out of wedlock was something to probably be stoned about anyway. But for today's purposes, would this passage also apply to women who had children out of wedlock as long as the women do not continue in such evil behavior but raise the child alone as she ought?
Thanks!
Theresa
Dear Theresa,
Widow pretty much means widow: a woman whose husband has died.
As to contemporary application, the basic point of Scripture is not, “Parse the precise difference between biblical widows and contemporary single moms, adjusting for factors like fornication, etc.” It's “love your neighbor as yourself.” Our task is to help our neighbor, even our neighbor the fornicator. That doesn't mean approving of the fornication, of course. But we are committed as the Body of Christ to trying to assist, in whatever way possible, our neighbor in living more justly, charitably, and prosperously.
Mark Shea
Senior Content Editor
Catholic Exchange
Mark Shea is Senior Content Editor for Catholic Exchange. You may visit his website at www.mark-shea.com check out his blog, Catholic and Enjoying It!, or purchase his books and tapes here.
