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Dear Catholic Exchange,
I am Catholic. There are Mormons who are trying to convert me to their faith. One thing they claim to have is baptism of the dead, which they say is an ancient practice performed by the early Christians, including the Apostles. They quoted me 1 Corinthians 15:29-30: “If this were not true, what do people hope to gain by being baptized for the dead? If the dead are not ever going to be raised, why be baptized on their behalf?” I have to admit, it does sound like baptisms on behalf of the dead were being performed, even by St. Paul. How do I look at this scripture verse in a Catholic light?
Chiemi
Dear Chiemi,
Peace in Christ!
What was Paul referring to in 1 Corinthians 15:29? He wrote to the Corinthians, “Otherwise, what do people mean by being baptized on behalf of the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized on their behalf?” The context, of course, is Paul’s defense of the general resurrection, which some denied. Baptism on behalf of the dead would make no sense if there was no resurrection, because if there is no resurrection, there is no hope (cf. v. 14).
Paul obviously expected the Corinthians to know what he was talking about, because he doesn’t explain what he means by baptism for the dead. Thus, biblical scholars have only speculated about 1 Corinthians 15:29, but no one really knows for certain. There is not much exegesis on this passage. One view is that because of persecutions, many of those coming into the Church were killed before they could be baptized. Christian friends of the dead would undergo a baptism by proxy that possessed only a purely symbolic value. The purpose was to publicly show that the dead were counted among the faithful, as catechumens are now. However, it is said that the practice was soon dropped for fear of misunderstanding. This theory seems reasonable enough; however, there is no historical evidence to support it.
Another theory is that Paul was referring to the various ritual cleansings that are given in Numbers 19 for those who had come into contact with a dead person. The person had to undergo a baptism to be symbolically “resurrected,” because “death spread to death in the Old Testament.” What is reasonable about this theory is simply that Paul was well instructed in the law (he was a Pharisee) and could have easily had this reference in mind. People with this view would have to understand the passage to be saying that persons were baptized “because” of the dead, rather than on their “behalf.” This understanding would fit into the overall context of 1 Corinthians 15, which is a defense of the general resurrection of believers. This view is not certain, either, and does raise questions of its own.
The bottom line, however, is that Mormons do not recognize the line of Tradition coming to us directly from the Apostles, preserved by their successors by the power of the Holy Spirit. Mormons, being human, might misconstrue a passage and misunderstand an ancient practice because of that error. However, the fact that Christians have not practiced a baptism for the dead for centuries is not taken into account. This is because they believe that sometime in the early Church there was a clean break with apostolic teaching the “Great Apostasy” after which the Church can claim no teaching authority. The “Great Apostasy” theory gives Mormons their authority to interpret scriptures and historical events as they wish. For more information on Mormons and the Great Apostasy please see our Faith Fact.
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