Dear Catholic Exchange:
I was looking up an article on how Pope John Paul II (2003) urged Christians to do their duty and be involved politically. It was a wonderful article especially in the light of the recent elections. One thing puzzled me though. There was a quiz on the page about who Jesus wept for in John 11:35. The correct answer you gave was Lazarus?? Why would He weep for someone sleeping? John 11:11 says, "Our friend Lazarus has fallen asleep; but I am going there to wake him up." If he was crying for Lazurus, wouldn't he have cried when he was first told of the death and not stayed two more days before coming? He knew the Father had power over life and death and that this would be a situation that would glorify God. Couldn't it be that Jesus wept because of Mary and Martha's unbelief?
Thanks for your time!
Scripture doesn't tell us why Jesus wept. It merely notes that he did. It also doesn't tell us that Mary and Martha disbelieved. Indeed, it very specifically states that they declared their faith that he was the Christ who was to come into the world. Jesus may have wept for the death of Lazarus just as we too weep, even though we believe in eternal life.
Senior Content Editor